continuous phase rotation always confuses me a bit. if you've got a reference 1MHz tone and a second 1MHz tone in continuous phase rotation to the reference, surely the second tone is not actually 1MHz? by definition it can only be phase-shifted by losing or gaining time, and if the phase rotation is continuous then surely that must imply a frequency delta proportional to the rate of change of phase?
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@gsuberland if the difference is in the order of a single hz I think it's fair to describe them as being the same frequency.
